electrikalstorm (electrikalstorm) wrote in classicalgreek,

Imperatives Question

 My Greek class is working its way through the first few chapters of Athenaze and I have a question about accents and verbs.  Basically, I’m trying to figure out how they work with imperatives.

So far, my understanding is that the singular and plural imperatives for –w verbs end in –e and –ete, respectively, and -ew verbs with –ei and –ei~te.  At the same time, I realize that the accents on verbs are supposed to be recessive, so to some extent I can see why they are changing places in the examples below.

However, I have questions about what’s going on with the accents in the following situations:

1)     1) Sullamba&nw changes to sulla&mbane in the singular imperative.  What is the reason for the accent’s shift to another syllable?

2)      2) Kaqeu&dei changes to ka&qeude in the singular imperative.  Is there a reason the original acute doesn’t change to a circumflex, given that the final syllable in the imperative is now short?  This is what appears to happen in speu&dei’s change to speu=de in the singular imperative.

There are other examples of imperatives in the chapters which I can memorize, but am unable to change from singular to plural or vice-versa because the changes in accents remain unclear to me (e.g. plh/qu<ne, e3lkete, a0rou=te).  Is anyone able to explain what’s happening with the accents in these imperatives? I’ve looked through a few different resources, but without much luck.  (For those of you who just happen to have your copies of Athenaze within arm’s reach, the forms in question can be found in chapter 2(b).)

Thanks for any help!

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